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NEW QUESTION: 1
Which of the following is true for the actuarial approach to credit risk modeling (CreditRisk+):
A. The approach considers only default risk, and ignores the risk to portfolio value from credit downgrades
B. The approach is based upon historical rating transition matrices
C. Default correlations between obligors are accounted for using a multivariate normal model
D. The number of defaults is modeled using a binomial distribution where the number of defaults are considered discrete events
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The actuarial model considers defaults to follow a Poisson distribution with a given mean per period, and these are binary in nature, ie a default happens or it does not happen. The model does not consider the loss of value from credit downgrades, and focuses only on defaults. The model also does not consider default correlations between obligors. Therefore Choice 'c' is the correct answer.
The other choices are not true statements that would apply to the actuarial approach.

NEW QUESTION: 2

A. Option D
B. Option C
C. Option B
D. Option A
Answer: C

NEW QUESTION: 3
Cisco APICコントローラーと従来のSDNコントローラーについて正しい説明はどれですか。
A. APICはサウスバウンドRESTAPIをサポートしています
B. APICはノースバウンドプロトコルとしてOpFlexをサポートしています
C. APICは、ポリシーエージェントを使用してポリシーを命令に変換します
D. APICは命令モデルを使用します
Answer: C
Explanation:
The southbound protocol used by APIC is OpFlex that is pushed by Cisco as the protocol for policy enablement across physical and virtual switches.
Southbound interfaces are implemented with some called Service Abstraction Layer (SAL), which talks to the network elements via SNMP and CLI.
Note: Cisco OpFlex is a southbound protocol in a software-defined network (SDN).