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  • Exam Code: 101-500
  • Exam Name: LPIC-1 Exam 101, Part 1 of 2, version 5.0
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  • Exam Code: 101-500
  • Exam Name: LPIC-1 Exam 101, Part 1 of 2, version 5.0
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  • Exam Code: 101-500
  • Exam Name: LPIC-1 Exam 101, Part 1 of 2, version 5.0
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  • Q & A: 400 Questions and Answers
  • Software Price: $51.98
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NEW QUESTION: 1
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization.
You purchase a Microsoft Office 365 subscription and configure a hybrid deployment.
The network contains an SMTP relay server named smarthost.contoso.com. The server is configured to use a certificate that has a subject name of smarthost.contoso.com.
All users have Microsoft Outlook 2013 installed on their client computer. Outlook 2013 is configured to connect to mail.contoso.com.
All Exchange servers have a certificate that has a subject name of mail.contoso.com.
You discover that email messages sent from on-premises users are not delivered to Office 365 recipients. You discover that the Send connector for Office 365 uses a smart host of smarthost.contoso.com.
You need to ensure that the on-premises users can send email messages to the Office 365 recipients.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Run the Hybrid Configuration Wizard again.
B. Remove the smart host from the Send connector.
C. Assign a certificate that has a subject name of smarthost.contoso.com to the Send connector.
D. Configure the centralized mail transport option.
E. Configure the Microsoft Exchange Online Protection (EOP) Send connector to use smarthost.contoso.com
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
A: Creating and configuring a hybrid deployment with the Hybrid Configuration wizard is now a single process in Microsoft Exchange Server 2013. First, the wizard creates the HybridConfiguration object in your on-premises Active Directory. This Active Directory object stores the hybrid configuration information for the hybrid deployment and is updated by the Hybrid Configuration wizard. Next, the wizard gathers existing on-premises Exchange and Active Directory topology configuration data, Office 365 tenant and Exchange Online configuration data, defines several organization parameters and then runs an extensive sequence of configuration tasks in both the on-premises and Exchange Online organizations.
E: Note:
*By default, Microsoft Exchange Server 2013 doesn't allow you to send mail outside of your domain. To send mail outside your domain, you need to create a Send connector.
*Use the Set-SendConnector cmdlet to modify a Send connector. / Parameters include TlsCertificateName The TlsCertificateName parameter specifies the X.509 certificate to use with TLS sessions and secure mail. Valid input for this parameter is [I]Issuer[S]Subject. The Issuer value is found in the certificate's Issuer field, and the Subject value is found in the certificate's Subject field. You can find these values by running the Get-ExchangeCertificate cmdlet.

NEW QUESTION: 2
Which Cisco Nexus feature is best managed with DCNM-SAN?
A. domain parameters
B. VSS
C. AAA
D. virtual switches
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The Fibre Channel domain (fcdomain) feature performs principal switch selection, domain ID distribution, FC ID allocation, and fabric reconfiguration functions as described in the FC-SW-2 standards. The domains are configured on a per VSAN basis. If you do not configure a domain ID, the local switch uses a random ID.
This section describes each fcdomain phase:
*Principal switch selection - This phase guarantees the selection of a unique principal switch across the fabric.

*Domain ID distribution - This phase guarantees each switch in the fabric obtains a unique domain ID.

*FC ID allocation - This phase guarantees a unique FC ID assignment to each device attached to the corresponding switch in the fabric.

*Fabric reconfiguration - This phase guarantees a resynchronization of all switches in the fabric to ensure they simultaneously restart a new principal switch selection phase.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/mds9000/sw/5_2/configuration/guides/sysmgnt/DCNM-SAN/sysmgmt_dcnm/sysmgmt_overview.html#wp1051962

NEW QUESTION: 3
A fleet of Amazon ECS instances is used to poll an Amazon SQS queue and update items in an Amazon DynamoDB database. Items in the table are not being updated, and the SQS queue is filling up. Amazon CloudWatch Logs are showing consistent 400 errors when attempting to update the table. The provisioned write capacity units are appropriately configured, and no throttling is occurring.
What is the LIKELY cause of the failure?
A. The ECS service was deleted.
B. The ECS task role was modified.
C. The ECS configuration does not contain an Auto Scaling group.
D. The ECS instance task execution IAM role was modified.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
https://stackoverflow.com/questions/48999472/difference-between-aws-elastic-container-services-ecs-executionr
https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonECS/latest/developerguide/task_definition_parameters.html

NEW QUESTION: 4
SCENARIO
Please use the following to answer the next question:
Due to rapidly expanding workforce, Company A has decided to outsource its payroll function to Company B. Company B is an established payroll service provider with a sizable client base and a solid reputation in the industry.
Company B's payroll solution for Company A relies on the collection of time and attendance data obtained via a biometric entry system installed in each of Company A's factories. Company B won't hold any biometric data itself, but the related data will be uploaded to Company B's UK servers and used to provide the payroll service. Company B's live systems will contain the following information for each of Company A's employees:
Name
Address
Date of Birth
Payroll number
National Insurance number
Sick pay entitlement
Maternity/paternity pay entitlement
Holiday entitlement
Pension and benefits contributions
Trade union contributions
Jenny is the compliance officer at Company A.
She first considers whether Company A needs to carry out a data protection impact assessment in relation to the new time and attendance system, but isn't sure whether or not this is required.
Jenny does know, however, that under the GDPR there must be a formal written agreement requiring Company B to use the time and attendance data only for the purpose of providing the payroll service, and to apply appropriate technical and organizational security measures for safeguarding the data. Jenny suggests that Company B obtain advice from its data protection officer. The company doesn't have a DPO but agrees, in the interest of finalizing the contract, to sign up for the provisions in full. Company A enters into the contract.
Weeks later, while still under contract with Company A, Company B embarks upon a separate project meant to enhance the functionality of its payroll service, and engages Company C to help. Company C agrees to extract all personal data from Company B's live systems in order to create a new database for Company B.
This database will be stored in a test environment hosted on Company C's U.S. server. The two companies agree not to include any data processing provisions in their services agreement, as data is only being used for IT testing purposes.
Unfortunately, Company C's U.S. server is only protected by an outdated IT security system, and suffers a cyber security incident soon after Company C begins work on the project. As a result, data relating to Company A's employees is visible to anyone visiting Company C's website. Company A is unaware of this until Jenny receives a letter from the supervisory authority in connection with the investigation that ensues. As soon as Jenny is made aware of the breach, she notifies all affected employees.
The GDPR requires sufficient guarantees of a company's ability to implement adequate technical and organizational measures. What would be the most realistic way that Company B could have fulfilled this requirement?
A. Requesting advice and technical support from Company A's IT team.
B. Hiring companies whose measures are consistent with recommendations of accrediting bodies.
C. Avoiding the use of another company's data to improve their own services.
D. Vetting companies' measures with the appropriate supervisory authority.
Answer: B

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