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  • Exam Code: 156-835
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  • Exam Code: 156-835
  • Exam Name: Check Point Certified Maestro Expert
  • Version: V17.95
  • Q & A: 400 Questions and Answers
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CheckPoint 156-835 dumps - Testing Engine

156-835 Testing Engine
  • Exam Code: 156-835
  • Exam Name: Check Point Certified Maestro Expert
  • Version: V17.95
  • Q & A: 400 Questions and Answers
  • Software Price: $51.98
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NEW QUESTION: 1
Ein Benutzer, der nicht auf eine Netzwerkfreigabe zugreifen kann, kann auf E-Mails zugreifen. Ein Techniker hat bestätigt, dass der Benutzer über die entsprechenden Berechtigungen für den Zugriff auf die Freigabe verfügt. Welchen der folgenden Befehle sollte der Techniker ZUERST verwenden?
A. ipconfig
B. Ping
C. nslooking
D. Nettonutzung
Answer: C

NEW QUESTION: 2
Scenario: A Citrix Architect is designing a new Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops environment. The architect's objective is to create a configuration to automatically reroute network traffic to the second NIC within the bond. The goal is to avoid a loss of productivity should the primary Citrix Hypervisor host NIC fail. Each hypervisor currently consists of a single, active 10 GB NIC and a second, dormant 1 GB NIC.
Which two network interface configurations should the architect implement? (Choose two.)
A. Active-active (LACP)
B. Active-active (SLB)
C. NIC teaming-bonding
D. Active-passive (LACP)
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/xencenter/current-release/hosts-network.html

NEW QUESTION: 3
Given the following estimated financial results, value the stock of Magic Holdings, Inc. using the infinite period dividend discount model (DDM).
Which of the following choices is closest to the value of Magic Holding Inc. stock? (Note: Carry calculations out to at least 3 decimals.)
A. Unable to calculate stock value because ke < g.
B. $44.64.
C. $23.54.
D. $109.27.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Here, we are given all the inputs we need. Use the following steps to calculate the value of the stock:
First, expand the infinite period DDM:
DDMformula: P0= D1/ (ke- g)
D1
= (Earnings * Payout ratio) / average number of shares outstanding
= ($200,000 * 0.625) / 50,000 = $2.50.
ke
= nominal risk free rate + [beta * (expected market return - nominal risk free rate)] Note: Nominal risk-free rate = (1 + real risk free rate) * (1 + expected inflation) - 1
=(1.035)*(1.040) - 1 = 0.0764, or 7.64%.
ke
= 7.64% + [1.8 * (13.0% - 7.64%)] = 0.17288.
g
= (retention rate * ROE)
Retention = (1 - Payout) = 1 - 0.625 = 0.375.
ROE = (net income/sales)*(sales/total assets)*(total assets/equity)
= (200,000/1,000,000)*(1,000,000/750,000)*(750,000/500,000) = 0.40
g
= 0.375 * 0.40 = 0.15.
Then, calculate:P0= D1/ (ke- g) = $2.50 / (0.17288 - 0.15) = 109.27.

NEW QUESTION: 4
What are two possible causes for job failure when a Windows policy is configured to use Accelerator?
(Select two.)
A. client-side deduplication is disabled
B. the backup target is AdvancedDisk
C. the policy lacks a forced rescan schedule
D. insufficient space in the NetBackup installation directory
E. use of the NTFS Change Journal is disabled
Answer: B,D

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