SAP C_THR86_2105 Testking, C_THR86_2105 PDF & C_THR86_2105 Lernhilfe - Championlandzone

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  • Vendor : SAP
  • Certifications : SAP Certified Application Associate
  • Exam Name : SAP Certified Application Associate - SAP SuccessFactors Compensation 1H/2021
  • Exam Code : C_THR86_2105
  • Total Questions : 376 Q&As
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What is VCE Simulator?
VCE Exam Simulator is a test engine designed specifically for certification exam preparation. It allows you to create, edit, and take practice tests in an environment very similar to an actual exam.
SKU: C_THR86_2105 Categories: ,

Description

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    NEW QUESTION: 1
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    A. ipconfig
    B. nslooking
    C. Ping
    D. Nettonutzung
    Answer: B

    NEW QUESTION: 2
    Scenario: A Citrix Architect is designing a new Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops environment. The architect's objective is to create a configuration to automatically reroute network traffic to the second NIC within the bond. The goal is to avoid a loss of productivity should the primary Citrix Hypervisor host NIC fail. Each hypervisor currently consists of a single, active 10 GB NIC and a second, dormant 1 GB NIC.
    Which two network interface configurations should the architect implement? (Choose two.)
    A. Active-active (LACP)
    B. Active-active (SLB)
    C. Active-passive (LACP)
    D. NIC teaming-bonding
    Answer: B,C
    Explanation:
    https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/xencenter/current-release/hosts-network.html

    NEW QUESTION: 3
    Given the following estimated financial results, value the stock of Magic Holdings, Inc. using the infinite period dividend discount model (DDM).
    Which of the following choices is closest to the value of Magic Holding Inc. stock? (Note: Carry calculations out to at least 3 decimals.)
    A. $44.64.
    B. $23.54.
    C. $109.27.
    D. Unable to calculate stock value because ke < g.
    Answer: C
    Explanation:
    Explanation/Reference:
    Explanation:
    Here, we are given all the inputs we need. Use the following steps to calculate the value of the stock:
    First, expand the infinite period DDM:
    DDMformula: P0= D1/ (ke- g)
    D1
    = (Earnings * Payout ratio) / average number of shares outstanding
    = ($200,000 * 0.625) / 50,000 = $2.50.
    ke
    = nominal risk free rate + [beta * (expected market return - nominal risk free rate)] Note: Nominal risk-free rate = (1 + real risk free rate) * (1 + expected inflation) - 1
    =(1.035)*(1.040) - 1 = 0.0764, or 7.64%.
    ke
    = 7.64% + [1.8 * (13.0% - 7.64%)] = 0.17288.
    g
    = (retention rate * ROE)
    Retention = (1 - Payout) = 1 - 0.625 = 0.375.
    ROE = (net income/sales)*(sales/total assets)*(total assets/equity)
    = (200,000/1,000,000)*(1,000,000/750,000)*(750,000/500,000) = 0.40
    g
    = 0.375 * 0.40 = 0.15.
    Then, calculate:P0= D1/ (ke- g) = $2.50 / (0.17288 - 0.15) = 109.27.

    NEW QUESTION: 4
    What are two possible causes for job failure when a Windows policy is configured to use Accelerator?
    (Select two.)
    A. the policy lacks a forced rescan schedule
    B. use of the NTFS Change Journal is disabled
    C. the backup target is AdvancedDisk
    D. insufficient space in the NetBackup installation directory
    E. client-side deduplication is disabled
    Answer: C,D


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